The fullness of times past or is the future more full?

Look at the verses below and consider what Paul says.

It seems to me that Paul equates the fullness of time with the birth of Jesus.  Notice he says that it had come, as in past tense.

4 But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law, [Galatians 4:4 NKJV] emphasis mine

Now in Ephesians Paul makes a similar statement of the fullness of times and most commentators suggest this is still future some 2000 plus years later. 

 10 that in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth--in Him. [Ephesians 1:10 NKJV] emphasis mine

So my question is: Are these two time periods completely separate and unrelated with different beginnings and ends?  If so, when did each time period begin and what was or is each end?  

If in fact all the fullness of the times were in our ancient past how would that change the way you worship God?